Notes:Dual basis
From Maths
- Note: this article is very pedantic. Which is why the concrete-to-abstract isomorphism for example is invoked.
TODO: Finish off and turn into a task
Basis
Let (V,K) be a finite dimensional vector space over the field, K, suppose it has dimension n∈N.
- Let E:={E1,…,En} be any basis of V.
- Suppose V∗ is the set consisting of all functions, f:V→K which are linear maps.
- That is for f∈V∗ we have f:V→K and:
- ∀α,β∈K ∀u,v∈V[f(αu+βv)=αf(u)+βf(v)] (the map is linear)
- That is for f∈V∗ we have f:V→K and:
Then I claim:
- {ε1,…,εn} is a basis of V∗ - the dual space to V where we define:
- εi:V→K (obviously εi∈V∗) by εi:=ε′i∘ΦE.
- ΦE:V→Kn is the concrete-to-abstract isomorphism[Note 1] given by: ΦE:v1E1+⋯+vnEn↦(v1,…,vn)T (maps to a column vector) and
- ε′i:Kn→K defined by: ε′i:(v1,…,vi−1,vi,vi+1,…,vn)↦vi
- Thus εi:∑nj=1vjEj↦vi
- εi:V→K (obviously εi∈V∗) by εi:=ε′i∘ΦE.
Proof
The proof is done in 2 parts, first we must show that Span({ε1,…,εn})=V∗, then that the set of (co)vectors {ε1,…,εn} are a linearly independent set.
Span part
- Let f∈V∗ be given. We will show this implies f∈Span({ε1,…,εn}), and thus that Span({ε1,…,εn})⊆V∗
- First note that we can say f=g⟺∀v∈V[f(v)=g(v)][Note 2] so rather than considering trying to show (a,b)∈f⟺(a,b)∈g as a relation we can instead deal with it as a map.
- Let v∈V be given. Note that we can write v=∑nj=1vjEj which we shall write as ∑vjEj for short on this page.
- Now f(v)=f(∑vjEj)=∑vjf(Ej) by linarity of f.
- Note that f(αEj)=kjεj(αEj) for some kj∈K. Choose kj:=f(Ej)εj(Ej) and the result follows[Note 3]. Thus:
- we see f(v)=f(∑vjEj)=∑vjf(Ej)=∑vjkjεj(Ej)=∑(vjkj)εj(Ej)
- Now f(v)=f(∑vjEj)=∑vjf(Ej) by linarity of f.
- Since v∈V was arbitrary we have shown: ∀v∈V[f(v)=(∑(⋅kj)εj(Ej))(v)][Note 4]
- Thus we see f=(∑(⋅kj)εj(Ej))
- Thus f∈Span({ε1,…,εn})
Going the other way, to show that Span({ε1,…,εn})⊆V∗ is trivial. In fact as we know already V∗ is a vector space we might be able to show it just by applying what we already know! Either way, it's not hard.
Linear independence part
- Now we want to show that {ε1,…,εn} is a linearly independent set. This means we want to show:
- ((∑αiεi)=0_)⟹(∀i∈{1,…,n}[αi=0]), here 0_ denotes the map 0_:V→K by 0_:v↦0, lets prove this:
- Let i∈{1,…,n} be given
- Suppose αi≠0
- Choose v=0E1+⋯+OEi−1+viEi+0Ei+1+⋯0En (which perhaps can be written better as: (0,…,0,vi,0,…,0) where vi≠0
- Then by hypothesis: (∑αjεj)(v)=0, so:
- ∑αjεj(v)=∑αjεj(∑nk=1viEi) blah blah blah[Note 5]
- We arrive at: ∑αjεj(v)=αivi, but as the LHS =0 we see we have:
- αivi=0
- We know vi≠0, so αivi=0 means we must have αi=0. This contradicts that αi≠0, so we must have αi=0
- Then by hypothesis: (∑αjεj)(v)=0, so:
- Choose v=0E1+⋯+OEi−1+viEi+0Ei+1+⋯0En (which perhaps can be written better as: (0,…,0,vi,0,…,0) where vi≠0
- Suppose αi≠0
- Since i was arbitrary we see this is true for all alpha
Notes
- Jump up ↑ 's inverse - as we take the concrete to abstract function to be of the form :Kn→V. However as it's an isomorphism there is no problem here. The inverse is a bijective linear map, just as the Conc-Abs function itself is.
- Jump up ↑ Prove this! Well it's not far from the definition really, f(v)=g(v) means ∃y∈K such that (v,y)∈f∧(v,y)∈g. I could certainly phrase this better
- Jump up ↑ Prove this!
- Jump up ↑ The ⋅ is where the v goes for function application. I chose a bad way to write this, however it is easy to show something like:
- ∑(vjkj)εj(Ej)=∑kjεj(vjEj), then note:
- εj(vjEj)=εj(v) so we could write say:
- ∑(vjkj)εj(Ej)=(∑kjεj(⋅))(v)
- εj(vjEj)=εj(v) so we could write say:
- ∑(vjkj)εj(Ej)=∑kjεj(vjEj), then note:
- Jump up ↑ Flesh out