Notes:Dual basis

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Note: this article is very pedantic. Which is why the concrete-to-abstract isomorphism for example is invoked.

TODO: Finish off and turn into a task


Basis

Let (V,K) be a finite dimensional vector space over the field, K, suppose it has dimension nN.

  • Let E:={E1,,En} be any basis of V.
  • Suppose V is the set consisting of all functions, f:VK which are linear maps.
    • That is for fV we have f:VK and:
      • α,βK u,vV[f(αu+βv)=αf(u)+βf(v)] (the map is linear)

Then I claim:

  • {ε1,,εn} is a basis of V - the dual space to V where we define:
    • εi:VK (obviously εiV) by εi:=εiΦE.
      • ΦE:VKn is the concrete-to-abstract isomorphism[Note 1] given by: ΦE:v1E1++vnEn(v1,,vn)T (maps to a column vector) and
      • εi:KnK defined by: εi:(v1,,vi1,vi,vi+1,,vn)vi
    • Thus εi:nj=1vjEjvi

Proof

The proof is done in 2 parts, first we must show that Span({ε1,,εn})=V, then that the set of (co)vectors {ε1,,εn} are a linearly independent set.

Span part

  • Let fV be given. We will show this implies fSpan({ε1,,εn}), and thus that Span({ε1,,εn})V
    • First note that we can say f=gvV[f(v)=g(v)][Note 2] so rather than considering trying to show (a,b)f(a,b)g as a relation we can instead deal with it as a map.
    • Let vV be given. Note that we can write v=nj=1vjEj which we shall write as vjEj for short on this page.
      • Now f(v)=f(vjEj)=vjf(Ej) by linarity of f.
        • Note that f(αEj)=kjεj(αEj) for some kjK. Choose kj:=f(Ej)εj(Ej) and the result follows[Note 3]. Thus:
        • we see f(v)=f(vjEj)=vjf(Ej)=vjkjεj(Ej)=(vjkj)εj(Ej)
    • Since vV was arbitrary we have shown: vV[f(v)=((kj)εj(Ej))(v)][Note 4]
    • Thus we see f=((kj)εj(Ej))
  • Thus fSpan({ε1,,εn})

Going the other way, to show that Span({ε1,,εn})V is trivial. In fact as we know already V is a vector space we might be able to show it just by applying what we already know! Either way, it's not hard.

Linear independence part

  • Now we want to show that {ε1,,εn} is a linearly independent set. This means we want to show:
    • ((αiεi)=0_)(i{1,,n}[αi=0]), here 0_ denotes the map 0_:VK by 0_:v0, lets prove this:
  • Let i{1,,n} be given
    • Suppose αi0
      • Choose v=0E1++OEi1+viEi+0Ei+1+0En (which perhaps can be written better as: (0,,0,vi,0,,0) where vi0
        • Then by hypothesis: (αjεj)(v)=0, so:
          • αjεj(v)=αjεj(nk=1viEi) blah blah blah[Note 5]
        • We arrive at: αjεj(v)=αivi, but as the LHS =0 we see we have:
          • αivi=0
          • We know vi0, so αivi=0 means we must have αi=0. This contradicts that αi0, so we must have αi=0
  • Since i was arbitrary we see this is true for all alpha

Notes

  1. Jump up 's inverse - as we take the concrete to abstract function to be of the form :KnV. However as it's an isomorphism there is no problem here. The inverse is a bijective linear map, just as the Conc-Abs function itself is.
  2. Jump up Prove this! Well it's not far from the definition really, f(v)=g(v) means yK such that (v,y)f(v,y)g. I could certainly phrase this better
  3. Jump up Prove this!
  4. Jump up The is where the v goes for function application. I chose a bad way to write this, however it is easy to show something like:
    • (vjkj)εj(Ej)=kjεj(vjEj), then note:
      • εj(vjEj)=εj(v) so we could write say:
        • (vjkj)εj(Ej)=(kjεj())(v)
  5. Jump up Flesh out