Exercises:Mond - Topology - 2/Section B/Question 5
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[hide]Section B
Question 5
Is the quotient map from [0,1]×[0,1]⊂R2 to the real projective plane, RP2, an open map?
Solution
We will consider the square as I2⊂R2 where I:=[0,1]:={x∈R | 0≤x≤1}⊂R with v0=(0,0), v1=(1,0), v2=(0,1) and v3=(1,1).
Definitions
- Let π:I2→RP2 be the quotient map the question talks about.
- Let ϵ∈(0,√22)⊂R be given, the upper bound is chosen so the open ball considered at a vertex does not cross any diagonals of the square.
- Let X:=Bϵ(v3)∩I2, where the open ball Bϵ(v3) of radius ϵ centred at v3 is considered in R2, thus Bϵ(v3)∩I2 is open in the subspace topology I2 inherits from R2
Outline of solution
We will show that π is not an open map, by showing that π(X) has a boundary point, namely π(v3) itself and combine this with:
As π(X) has a boundary point contained in π(X) it cannot be open! We have exhibited an open set of I2 (namely X) which is mapped to a non-open set (namely π(X)), thus π cannot be an open map
Solution body
- Let ϵ>0 be given such that ϵ∈R and ϵ<√22
- Define X:=Bϵ(v3;R2)∩I2 - the intersection of the open ball of radius ϵ, in R2 and I2, by definition of the subspace topology X is open in I2
- We claim that π(v3)∈∂π(X) - that is that π(v3) is a boundary point of π(X).
- To show this we will use a point is in the boundary of a set if and only if every open neighbourhood to that point contains both a point in the set and a point not in the set
- Let U be an arbitrary open neighbourhood in RP2 to π(v3) be given.
- As π is continuous we have π−1(U) is open in I2
- As π(v3)∈U (by definition) and π(v3)=π(v0) we see π(v0)∈U
- Let U be an arbitrary open neighbourhood in RP2 to π(v3) be given.
- Define X:=Bϵ(v3;R2)∩I2 - the intersection of the open ball of radius ϵ, in R2 and I2, by definition of the subspace topology X is open in I2