Every lingering sequence has a convergent subsequence
From Maths
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[hide]Statement
Let (X,d) be a metric space, then[1]:
- ∀(xn)∞n=1⊆X[(∃x∈X ∀ϵ>0[|Bϵ(x)∩(xn)∞n=1|=ℵ0])⟹(∃(kn)∞n=1⊆N[(∀n∈N[kn<kn+1])⟹(∃x′∈X[lim
This is just a verbose way of expressing the statement that:
- Given a sequence (x_n)_{n=1}^\infty\subseteq X if it is a lingering sequence then it has a subsequence that converges
Proof
TODO: Write proof
Proof outline:
- Take k_1 to be the index of any point of the sequence in B_1(x)
- Take k_2 to be any index AFTER k_1 of the sequence in the ball B_\frac{1}{2}(x)
- ...
- Show the sequence (x_{k_n})_{n=1}^\infty converges to x
We have exhibited a convergent subsequence, we're done.
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References
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