Exercises:Mond - Topology - 2/Section B/Question 5
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[hide]Section B
Question 5
Is the quotient map from [0,1]×[0,1]⊂R2 to the real projective plane, RP2, an open map?
Solution
We will consider the square as I2⊂R2 where I:=[0,1]:={x∈R | 0≤x≤1}⊂R with v0=(0,0), v1=(1,0), v2=(0,1) and v3=(1,1).
Definitions
We notice that for some open ball in I2 (in green) that the image of it in RP2 under π has boundary points. To show this we must show for any open neighbourhood U (shown in red) to a suspected boundary point (which isπ(v3)=π(v0)) contains a point inside and a point outside the image of X (green). To find this we use open balls in I2 contained inside the pre-image of U (purple) - which are open by continuity.
Notice that the diagonal which shows the image of the edges under π is not straight or even smooth (shown at the extremes from π(v3)), we draw it this way for convenience!
Notice that the diagonal which shows the image of the edges under π is not straight or even smooth (shown at the extremes from π(v3)), we draw it this way for convenience!
- Let π:I2→RP2 be the quotient map the question talks about.
- Let ϵ∈(0,√22)⊂R be given, the upper bound is chosen so the open ball considered at a vertex does not cross any diagonals of the square.
- Let X:=Bϵ(v3)∩I2, where the open ball Bϵ(v3) of radius ϵ centred at v3 is considered in R2, thus Bϵ(v3)∩I2 is open in the subspace topology I2 inherits from R2
Outline of solution
We will show that π is not an open map, by showing that π(X) has a boundary point, namely π(v3) itself and combine this with:
As π(X) has a boundary point contained in π(X) it cannot be open! We have exhibited an open set of I2 (namely X) which is mapped to a non-open set (namely π(X)), thus π cannot be an open map
Solution body
- Let ϵ>0 be given such that ϵ∈R and ϵ<√22
- Define X:=Bϵ(v3;R2)∩I2 - the intersection of the open ball of radius ϵ, in R2 and I2, by definition of the subspace topology X is open in I2
- We claim that π(v3)∈∂π(X) - that is that π(v3) is a boundary point of π(X).
- To show this we will use a point is in the boundary of a set if and only if every open neighbourhood to that point contains both a point in the set and a point not in the set
- Let U be an arbitrary open neighbourhood in RP2 to π(v3) be given.
- As π is continuous we have π−1(U) is open in I2
- As π(v3)∈U (by definition) and π(v3)=π(v0) we see from π(v0)∈U that v0∈π−1(U)
- As π−1(U) is an open set and v0,v3∈π−1(U) we see there exist δ′1,δ′2>0 such that Bδ′1(v0)⊂π−1(U) and Bδ′2(v3)⊂π−1(U)
- Define δ1:=Max({δ′1,√22}) and δ1:=Max({δ′1,√22}) - this will prevent the following balls from crossing the diagonal of the square and keeps them disjoint.
- Notice the following: Bδ1(v0)⊆Bδ′1(v0)⊂π−1(U) and Bδ2(v3)⊆Bδ′2(v3)⊂π−1(U)
- Define p1∈Bδ1(v0) to be any point in Bδ1(v0) such that p1≠v0 and both the x and y coordinates are not 0 (for example: p1:=(δ12,δ12) would do nicely)
- Define p2∈Bδ2(v3) to be any point in Bδ2(v3) such that p2≠v3 and both the x and y coordinates are not 1 (for example: p2:=(1−δ22,1−δ22) would do nicely)
- Notice: The situation is shown in the 3rd diagram on the right
- π(p1)∈U and π(p2)∈U
- π(p2)∈π(X)
- π(p1)∉π(X)
- π(p1)≠π(v3) and
- π(p2)≠π(v1) It my be unnecessary to find a point distinct from the (suspected) boundary point inside and outside of X, however as it was only a minor detour, we have done it
- Note that π restricted to (0,1)×(0,1) (the interior of the I2 considered in the space R2[Note 1]) is injective so we see π(p1)≠π(p2)
- Next, observe that (by design, this is the whole point of identification spaces like this) the edges by each point are mapped over each other (in direction depending on the arrows in the identification), as p1 and p2 are not on the edge, nor are they vertices, they are not mapped to it.
- So now we have: π(p1)∈U, π(p2)∈U and importantly, for the boundary point theorem mentioned above:
- π(p1)∉π(X) and π(p2)∈π(X)
- Notice: The situation is shown in the 3rd diagram on the right
- Since our choice of U (an open neighbourhood to π(v3)) was arbitrary, we have shown for all such U there exists points inside of U such that 1 is inside π(X) and one is outside π(X); namely π(p1) and π(p2).
- We actually went a bit to far and found a point in the interior of π(X)
- Let U be an arbitrary open neighbourhood in RP2 to π(v3) be given.
- We apply the theorem: "a point is in the boundary of a set if and only if every open neighbourhood to that point contains both a point in the set and a point not in the set" to show:
- π(v3)∈∂(π(X)) (where ∂A denotes the boundary of a set A in some topological space)
- Next, we recall the theorem: "a set is an open set if and only if it contains none of its boundary points"
- Well, π(v3)∈∂(π(X)) so π(X) contains (at least) 1 of its boundary points, therefore it cannot be open.
- As X⊂I2 is open, but its image, π(X)⊂RP2 is not open, π cannot be an open map, as:
- To be an open map, the image of every open set in the domain (I2) must be open in RP2, we have demonstrated this is not the case
- Define X:=Bϵ(v3;R2)∩I2 - the intersection of the open ball of radius ϵ, in R2 and I2, by definition of the subspace topology X is open in I2
Thus π is not an open map.
Notes
- Jump up ↑ As the interior of I2 considered in the topological space I2 is I2 of course!